Why I am not a Bayesian*

April 16, 2015 • 8:45 am

JAC: Today Greg contributes his opinion on the use of Bayesian inference in statistics. I know that many—perhaps most—readers aren’t familiar with this, but it’s of interest to those who are. Further, lots of secular bloggers either write about or use Bayesian inference, as when inferring the probability that Jesus existed given the scanty data. (Theists use it too, sometimes to calculate the probability that God exists given some observations, like the supposed fine-tuning of the Universe’s physical constants.)

When I warned Greg about the difficulty some readers might have, he replied that, “I tried to keep it simple, but it is, as Paul Krugman says about some of his posts, ‘wonkish’.” So wonkish we shall have!

___________

by Greg Mayer

Last month, in a post by Jerry about Tanya Luhrmann’s alleged supernatural experiences, I used a Bayesian argument to critique her claims, remarking parenthetically that I am not a Bayesian. A couple of readers asked me why I wasn’t a Bayesian, and I promised to reply more fully later. So, here goes; it is, as Paul Krugman says, “wonkish“.

Approaches to inference

I studied statistics as an undergraduate and graduate student with some of the luminaries in the field, used statistics, and helped people with statistics; but it wasn’t until I began teaching the subject that I really thought about the logical basis of the subject. Trying to explain to students why we were doing what we were doing forced me to explain it to myself. And, I wasn’t happy with some of those explanations. So, I began looking more deeply into the logic of statistical inference. Influenced strongly by the writings of Ian Hacking, Richard Royall, and especially the geneticist A.W.F. Edwards, I’ve come to adopt a version of the likelihood approach. The likelihood approach takes it that the goal of statistical inference is the same as that of scientific inference, and that the operationalization of this goal is to treat our observations as data bearing upon the adequacy of our theories. Not all approaches to statistical inference share this goal. Some are more modest, and some are more ambitious.

The more modest approach to statistical inference is that of Jerzy Neyman and Egon Pearson. In the Neyman-Pearson approach, one is concerned to adopt rules of behavior that minimize one’s mistakes. For example, buying a mega-pack of paper towels at Sam’s Club, and then finding that they are of unacceptably low quality, would be a mistake. They define two sorts of errors that might occur in making decisions, and see statistics as a way of reducing one’s decision making error rates. Although they, and especially, Neyman, made some quite grandiose claims for their views, the whole approach seems rather despairing to me: having given up on any attempt to obtain knowledge about the world, they settle for a clean, well-lighted place, or at least one in which the light bulbs usually work. While their approach makes perfect sense in the context of industrial quality control, it is not a suitable basis for scientific inference (which, indeed, Neyman thought was not possible).

The approach of R.A. Fisher, founder of modern statistics and evolutionary theory, shares with the likelihood approach the goal of treating our observations as data bearing upon the adequacy of our theories, and the two approaches also share many statistical procedures, but differ most notably on the issue of significance testing (i.e., those “p” values you often see in scientific papers, or commentaries upon them). What is actually taught and practiced by most scientists today is a hodge-podge of the Neyman-Pearson and Fisherian approaches. Much of the language and theory of Neyman-Pearson is used (e.g., types of errors), but, since few or no scientists actually want to do what Neyman and Pearson wanted to do, current statistical practice is suffused with an evidential interpretation quite congenial to Fisher, but foreign to the Neyman-Pearson approach.

Bayesianism, like the Fisherian and likelihood approaches, also sees our observations as data bearing upon the adequacy of our theories, but is more ambitious in wanting to have a formal, quantitative method for integrating what we learn from observation with everything else we know or believe, in order to come up with a single numerical measure of rational belief in propositions.

So, what is Bayesianism?

The Rev. Thomas Bayes was an 18th century English Nonconformist minister. His “An Essay Towards Solving a Problem in the Doctrine of Chances” was published in 1763, two years after his death. In the Essay, Bayes proved the famous theorem that now bears his name. The theorem is a useful, important, and nonproblematic result in probability theory. In modern notation, it states

P(H∣D) = [P(D∣H)⋅P(H)]/P(D).

In words, the probability P of an hypothesis H in the light of data D is equal to the probability of the data if the hypothesis were true (called the hypothesis’s likelihood) times the probability of the hypothesis prior to obtaining data D, with the product divided by the unconditional probability of the data (for any given problem, this would be a constant). Ignoring the constant in the denominator, P(D), we can say that the posterior probability, P(H∣D), (the probability of the hypothesis after we see the data), is proportional to the likelihood of the hypothesis in light of the data, P(D∣H), (the probability of the data if the hypothesis were true), times the prior probability, P(H), (the probability we gave to the hypothesis before we saw the data).

The theorem has many uncontroversial applications in fields such as genetics and medical diagnosis. These applications may be thought of as two-stage experiments, in which an initial experiment (or background set of observations) establishes probabilities for each of a set of exhaustive and mutually exclusive hypotheses, while the results of a second experiment (or set of observations), providing data D, are used to reevaluate the probabilities of the hypotheses. Thus, knowing something about the grandparents of a set of offspring may influence my evaluation of genetic hypotheses concerning the offspring. Or, in making a diagnosis, I may include in my calculations the known prevalence of a disease in the population, as well as the test results on a particular patient. For example, suppose a 95% accurate test for disease X is positive (+) for a patient, and the disease X is known to occur in 1% of the population. Then, by Bayes’ Theorem

P(X∣+) = P(+∣X)⋅P(X)/P(+)

= (.95)(.01)/[(.95)(.01)+(.05)(.99)]

= .16.

The probability that the patient has the disease is thus 16%. Note that despite the positive result on a pretty accurate test, the odds are more than four to one against the patient actually having condition X. This is because, since the disease is quite rare, most of the positive tests are false positives. [JAC: This is a common and counterintuitive result that could be of practical use to those of you who get a positive test. Such tests almost always mandate re-testing!]

So what could be controversial? Well, what if there is no first stage experiment or background knowledge which gives a probability distribution to the hypotheses? Bayes proposed what is known as Bayes’ Postulate: in the absence of prior information, each of the specifiable hypotheses should be accorded equal probability, or, for a continuum of hypotheses, a uniform distribution of probabilities. Bayes’ Postulate is an attempt to specify a probability distribution for ignorance. Thus, if I am studying the relative frequency of some event (which must range from 0 to 1), Bayes’ Postulate says I should assign a probability of .5 to the hypothesis that the event has a frequency greater than .5, and that the hypothesis that the frequency of the event falls between .25 and .40 should be given a probability of .15, and so on. But is Bayes’ Postulate a good idea?

Problems with Bayes’ Postulate

Let’s look at simple genetic example: a gene with two alleles (forms) at the locus (say alleles A and a). The two alleles have frequencies p + q = 1, and, if there are no evolutionary forces acting on the population and mating is at random, then the three genotypes (AA, Aa, and aa) will have the frequencies p², 2pq and q², respectively. If I am addressing the frequency of allele a, and I am a Bayesian, then I assign equal prior probability to all possible values of q, so

P(q>.5) = .5

But this implies that the frequency of the aa genotype has a non-uniform prior probability distribution

P(q²>.25) = .5.

My ignorance concerning q has become rather definite knowledge concerning q² (which, if there is genetic dominance at the locus, would be the frequency of recessive homozygotes; as in Mendel’s short pea plants, this is a very common way in which we observe the data). This apparent conversion of ‘ignorance’ to ‘knowledge’ will be generally so: prior probabilities are not invariant to parameter transformation (in this case, the transformation is the squaring of q). And even more generally, there will be no unique, objective distribution for ignorance. Lacking a genuine prior distribution (which we do have in the diagnosis example above), reasonable men may disagree on how to represent their ignorance. As Royall (1997) put it, “pure ignorance cannot be represented by a probability distribution”.

Bayesian inference

Bayesians proceed by using Bayes’ Postulate as a starting point, and then update their beliefs by using Bayes’ Theorem:

Posterior probability ∝ Likelihood × Prior probability

which can also be given as

Posterior opinion ∝ Likelihood × Prior opinion.

The appeal of Bayesianism is that it provides an all-encompassing, quantitative method for assessing the rational degree of belief in hypotheses. But there is still the problem of prior probabilities: what should we pick as our prior probabilities if there is no first-stage set of data to give us such a probability? Bayes’ Postulate doesn’t solve the problem, because there is no unique measure of ignorance. We must choose some prior probability distribution in order to carry out the Bayesian calculation, but you may choose a different distribution from the one I do, and neither is ‘correct’: the choice is subjective.

There are three ways round the problem of prior distributions. First, try really hard to find an objective way of portraying ignorance. This hasn’t worked yet, but some people are still trying. Second, note that the prior probabilities make little difference to the posterior probabilty as more and more data accumulate (i.e. as more experiments/observations provide more likelihoods), viz.

P(posterior) ∝ P(prior) × Likelihood  × Likelihood × Likelihood × . . .

In the end, only the likelihoods make a difference; but this is less a defense of Bayesianism than a surrender to likelihood. Third, boldly embrace subjectivity. But then, since everyone has their own prior, the only thing we can agree upon are the likelihoods.  So, why not just use the likelihoods?

The problem with Bayesianism is that it asks the wrong question. It asks, ‘How should I modify my current beliefs in the light of the data?’, rather than ‘Which hypotheses are best supported by the data?’. Bayesianism tells me (and me alone) what to believe, while likelihood tells us (all of us) what the data say.

*Apologies to Clark Glymour and Bertrand Russell.


Further Reading

The best and easiest place to start is with Sober and Royall.

Edwards, A.W.F. 1992. Likelihood. Expanded edition. Johns Hopkins University Press, Baltimore. An at times terse, but frequently witty, book that rewards careful study. In many ways, the founding document of likelihood inference; to paraphrase Darwin, it is ‘origin all my views’.

Gigerenzer, G., et al. 1989. The Empire of Chance. Cambridge University Press, Cambridge. A history of probability and statistics, including how the incompatible approaches of Fisher and Neyman-Pearson became hybridized into textbook orthodoxy.

Hacking, I. 1965. The Logic of Statistical Inference. Cambridge University Press, Cambridge. Hacking’s argument for likelihood as the fundamental concept for inference; he later changed his mind.

Hacking, I. 2001. An Introduction to Probability and Inductive Logic. Cambridge University Press, Cambridge. A well-written introductory textbook reflecting Hacking’s now more eclectic, and specifically Bayesian, views.

Royall, R. 1997. Statistical Evidence: a Likelihood Paradigm. Chapman & Hall, London. A very clear exposition of the likelihood approach, requiring little mathematical expertise. Along with Edwards, the key work in likelihood inference.

Sober, E. 2002. Bayesianism– Its Scope and Limits. Pp. 21-38 in R. Swinburne, ed., Bayes’ Theorem. Proceedings of the British Academy Press, vol. 113. An examination of the limits of both Bayesian and likelihood approaches. pdf (read this first!)

Psychology journal deep-sixes use of “p” values

March 5, 2015 • 8:45 am

Reader Ed Kroc sent an email about a strange development in scientific publishing—the complete elimination of “p” (probability) values in a big psychology journal. If you’re not a scientist or statistician, you may want to skip this post, but I think it’s important, and perhaps the harbinger of a bad trend in the field.

Before I present Ed’s email in its entirety, let me say a word (actually a lot of words) about “p values.”  These probabilities derive from experimental or observational tests of a “null hypothesis”— i.e., that an experimental treatment does not have an effect, or that two sample populations do not differ in some way. For example, suppose I want to see if rearing flies on different foods, say cornmeal versus yeast, affects their mating behavior.  The null hypothesis is that there is no effect on mating behavior. I then observe the behavior of 50 pairs of flies raised on each food, and find that 45 pair of the cornmeal flies mate within an hour, but only 37 pair of the yeast flies.

That looks different, but is it really? Suppose both kinds of flies really have equal propensities of mating, and the difference we see is just “sampling error”—something that could be due to chance alone. After all, if we toss a coin 10 times, and repeat that twice, perhaps the first time we’ll see 7 heads and the second time only 4. That is surely due to chance, because we’re using the same coin. Could that be the case for the flies?

It turns out that one can use statistics to calculate how often we’d see a given difference (due to sampling error) if the two populations were really the same. What we get is a “p” value: the probability that we’d see the difference we observed if the populations were really the same. The higher the p value, the more confidence we have that the populations really do not differ, and we’re seeing a sampling error. For example, if the p value were 0.8, that means there’s an 80% probability of getting the observed difference—or one that’s larger—by chance alone if the populations were the same. In that case we can’t have much confidence that the observed difference is a real one, and so we accept the null hypothesis and reject the “alternative hypothesis”—in our case that the kind of food experienced by a fly really does affect its behavior. But when a p value is small, say 0.01 (a 1% chance that we’d see a difference that big or bigger resulting from chance alone), we can have more confidence that there really is a difference between the sampled populations.

There’s a convention in biology that when the p value is lower than 5% (0.05), meaning that an observed difference that big or bigger would occur less than 5% of the time if the populations really were the same, we consider it statistically significant. That means that you’re entitled by convention to say that the populations really are different—and thus can publish a paper saying so. In the case above, the p value is 0.07, which is above the threshold, and so I couldn’t say in a paper that the differences were significant (remember, we mean statistically significant, not biologically significant).  There are various statistical tests one can use to compare samples to each other (you can do this not just with two samples but with multiple ones), and most of these take into account not just the average values or observed numbers, but also, in the case of measurements, the variation among individuals. In the test of two fly samples above, I used the “chi-square” test to get the probabilities.

Of course even if your samples are really from the same population, and there’s no effect, you’ll still see a “significant” difference 5% of the time even if it just reflects sampling error, so you can draw incorrect conclusions from the statistic.  That gave rise to the old maxim in biology, “You can do 20 experiments, and one will be publishable in Nature.” And of course one out of twenty papers you read that report p < 0.05 will be rejecting the null hypothesis (of no difference) erroneously.

I should note that the cut-off probabilities differ among fields. Physicists are more rigorous, and only accept p values of much less than 0.001 as significant (as they did when detecting the Higgs boson). In psychology some journals are more lax, accepting cut-off p’s of 0.1 (10%) or less. All of these numbers are of course arbitrary conventions, and some have suggested that we don’t use cut-off values to determine whether a result is “real”, but simply present that probabilities and let the reader judge for herself. I don’t disagree with that. But, according to statistician Ed Kroc, one journal has gone farther, suggesting that we don’t report p values at all! I think that’s a mistake, for then one has no way to judge how likely it is that your null hypothesis is wrong. Ed agrees, and reports the situation below:

*******

by Ed Kroc

I wanted to pass this along in case no one else has yet, as it could be of interest to you, as well as to anyone who has the occasion to use statistics. Apparently, the psychology journal Basic and Applied Social Psychology just banned the use of null hypothesis significance testing; see the editorial here.

As a statistician myself, I naturally have a lot to say about such a move, but I’ll limit myself to a few key points.

First, this type of action really underlines how little many people understand common statistical procedures and concepts, even those who use them on a regular basis and presumably have some minimal level of training in said usage. I appreciate the editors trying to address the very real problem of seeing statistical decision making reduced to checking whether or not a p-value crosses an arbitrary threshold, but their approach of banning the use of p-values and their closest kin just proves that they don’t fully understand the problem they are trying to address. p-values are not the problem. Misuse and misinterpretation of what p-values mean are the real problems, as is the insistence by most editorial boards that publishable applied research must include these quantities calculated to within a certain arbitrary range.

The manipulation of data and methods by researchers to attain an arbitrary 0.05 cutoff, the effective elimination of negative results by only
publishing results deemed “statistically significant”, the lack of modelling, and the lack of proper statistical decision making are all real problems within applied science today. Banning the usage of (frequentist) inferential methods does nothing to address these things. It’s like saying not enough people understand fractions, so we’re just going to get rid of division to address the problem.

Alarmingly, the editors say “the null hypothesis testing procedure is invalid”. What? No caveats? That’s news to me. Invalid under what rubric? They never say.

Interestingly, they no longer require any inferential statistics to appear in an article. I don’t actually categorically disagree with that policy—in fact, I think some research could be improved by including fewer inferential procedures—but their justification for it is ludicrous: “because the state of the art remains uncertain”. Well, then we should all stop doing any kind of science I guess. Who is practicing the
state of the art anywhere? And who gets to decide what is or is not state of the art?

Finally, the editors say this:

“BASP will require strong descriptive statistics, including effects sizes. We also encourage the presentation of frequency or distributional data when this is feasible. Finally, we encourage the use of larger sample sizes. . . because as the sample size increases, descriptive statistics become increasingly stable and sampling error less of a problem.”

First off, no, as sample size increases, sampling error does not necessarily become less of a problem: that’s true only if your sampling procedure is perfectly correct to begin with, something that is likely never to be the case in an experimental psychology setting. More importantly, they basically admit here that they only want to see descriptive statistics [means, variances, etc.] and they don’t need to know any statistics the discipline doesn’t understand. Effect sizes and frequency distributions? p-values are still sitting behind all of those, whether they’re calculated or not; they are just comparative measures of these things accounting for uncertainty. The editors seem to be replacing the p-value measure with the “eyeball measure”, effectively removing any quantification of the uncertainty in the experiments or random processes under consideration. A bit misguided, in my opinion.

I could go on—in particular, about their comments on Bayesian methods—but I’ll spare you any more of my own editorializing. Part of me wonders if this move is a bit of a publicity stunt for the journal. I know nothing about psychology journals or how popular this one is, but it seems like this type of move would certainly generate a lot of attention. I do hope though that other journals will not follow suit.